What if the P-Value is less than 0.05, but the test statistic is also less than the critical value? Strong G684. Translations differ in how they render this reference to Judas (though they often have a footnote saying that "son of perdition" is the word-for-word equivalent). Were any IBM mainframes ever run multiuser? Is John the Baptist the same John who wrote the Book of John in the New Testament? By using our site, you acknowledge that you have read and understand our Cookie Policy, Privacy Policy, and our Terms of Service. What support is there for the Jehovah’s Witness translation of John 1:1? Bullinger. Once he stopped protecting Judas, the temptations and desires of Satan entered into him and he was overtaken by the overwhelming temptations, to which he succumbed. He appears to equate this image with the Man of Sin. The "son of perdition/destruction" seems like an obvious translation, but it's not clear to me whether (in Greek or English) it should connote that he is a destroyer, or the one who is destroyed, or both. site design / logo © 2020 Stack Exchange Inc; user contributions licensed under cc by-sa. I think some perspective on the matter can be found in Luke: 1 Then said he unto the disciples, It is impossible but that offences will come: but woe unto him, through whom they come! Is there any evidence for the claim that the Catholic church suppressed translation of Scripture? Given that, it looks like the closest translation into plain English is the one given by the Jerusalem Bible. The son of perdition (Greek: ο υιος της απωλειας, ho huios tēs apōleias) is a phrase associated with a demoniacal title that appears in the New Testament in the Gospel of Saint John 17:12 and in the Second Epistle to the Thessalonians 2:3. If we look at this in light of Luke, we find this verse: Luke 22:3 (NIV) The phrase simply means “man doomed to destruction” and is not reserved for any one individual. The Mormon Church teaches that Joseph Smith saw God the Father and His Son. For what modules is the endomorphism ring a division ring? reply from potential PhD advisor? What is the translation methodology for the Nueva Versión Internacional (NVI)? Here, we see that Satan entered Judas. Looking at the Vines entry, this definitely means "son". If we read further in Luke we see this passage: Luke 22:4-6 (NIV) Emphasis added D. A. Carson suggests that this verse refers both to Judas' character and to his destiny.[1]. 4 And Judas went to the chief priests and the officers of the temple guard and discussed with them how he might betray Jesus. Similar uses of "son" occur in Hebrew, such as "sons of corruption" (Isaiah 1:4 בָּנִים מַשְׁחִיתִים banim mashchitim), however the exact Hebrew or Greek term "son of perdition" does not occur in Jewish writings prior to the New Testament. Examples: It seems to me that there are differences in how much agency is assigned to Judas here. That was the New American Standard Bible. Strong's 07 Daniel 7:11 says that the eventual destiny of the "great beast" is to be slain, and his body "destroyed" ('abad), and given to the eternal flames (generally accepted by religious scholars to be a reference to hell). So, the literal translation is most accurate to the original. How to sustain this sedentary hunter-gatherer society? These traditionally include Psalm 41:9 "Yea, mine own familiar friend, in whom I trusted, which did eat of my bread, hath lifted up his heel against me. If we look at what Jesus is saying here, he's saying that he saved and protected all of his disciples except for Judas. Judas Iscariot, who, after betraying Jesus, committed suicide instead of repenting, and went to hell for everlasting destruction. He was protecting them from Satan! [15], "Revelation," The People on the Earth: Chapters 2-3, Letter to Ephesus, v 13. John 17:12 John 17 - Click ... and not one of them became lost except the one who was destined for destruction, so that the Scripture might be fulfilled. With Judas, he withdrew that protection so that Satan could enter into his heart and tempt him. How to consider rude(?) Related to that, is there any real doctrinal difference between the phrases above? The Strongs number for this is G5207. The problem with looking at things too closely is that we often lose sight of the bigger picture. [Strong's 622] The Hebrew name is "Abaddon" (Greek: Aβαδδων), from the Aramaic root word "'abad", which means the same thing as the Greek root word. Various Old Testament origins have been suggested for "that the scripture might be fulfilled." Therefore was fully guilty of the betrayal. He refers to Judas as the "son of perdition" saying that he was the only one who he did not protect. Judas chose the path to ruin when he determined to betray Jesus.